Rob from rich,give to poor -> rob from poor,give to poor

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iamnotaparakeet
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02 Nov 2010, 6:10 pm

Macbeth wrote:
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
Robin Hood is an idealized character who, in his devotion to robbing the rich and giving to the poor, might as well have been a hero to Karl Marx. However, after enough iterations of robbing from the rich (of which I am not) and giving to the poor, would not the rich also be poor? Who then is left to be robbed after the riches of the rich have all been equally distributed? Does the rich man remain rich after his wealth is gone? Do the poor become rich after the rich man's wealth is gone or is there just one more poor man in the bunch who's just really pissed?


Your whole base theory is flawed because that's not how robbery works. Robin Hood didn't remove the machinery of state that allowed the rich to be rich. He merely removed the wealth generated, which would eventually be replaced by more wealth.

In a modern setting, nobody RICH who gets robbed stays poor. They merely generate more income, claim from insurance etc etc. The only people who get poorer from theft are the poor or the lower middle classes, who can often be considered "poor" by comparison to the rich.

The only way for a modern Robin Hood to make rich people poor would be to go round getting in on the employment ladder higher than them, and removing them, thus making them poor.


Why not just gas board room meetings?

[youtube]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gDn1PLzQvGo[/youtube]