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ruveyn
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14 Nov 2010, 3:24 am

Sand wrote:
ruveyn wrote:
Sand wrote:
I am rather fascinated by the frequent eruption of the question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" It boils down to the question of what do you mean by "Why?" What does "why" mean in that context? Is it a question of motivation or structure or intent? It's such a vague question as to be totally meaningless.


"why" has two main meanings:

1. From what cause or by what means - very related to "how" or "how come".
2. For what end or purpose.

Sometimes it is an interrogative "for what reason" which could pertain to either means or ends.

As you can see as an interrogative "why?" pertains to means or to ends. The context of the question is required to disambiguate the query.

ruveyn


And how would you interpret the question as to why there is something rather than nothing?


I would have to regard the question as either meaningless or unanswerable. It you assume the question is by what means is there something rather than nothing, it is assumed there is a means by which there is something rather than nothing, but that begs the question since it assumes that there is something. If you assume the question pertains to purpose then there must be some entity who has a purpose for making existence possible. But that assumes the possible, in postulating the existence of that entity. If one takes questions like this seriously, it will lead to brain fatigue. Sort of like asking what is the sound of one hand clapping or what happens when the Irresistable Force meets the Unmoveable Object. That is not a real query since neither the Irresistable Force nor the Unmoveable Object exists.

When I encounter pseudo philosophy, the like of which underlies such bogus questions, I reach for my thermodynamically operated metallic slug emitter.

ruveyn



Sand
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14 Nov 2010, 3:44 am

ruveyn wrote:
Sand wrote:
ruveyn wrote:
Sand wrote:
I am rather fascinated by the frequent eruption of the question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" It boils down to the question of what do you mean by "Why?" What does "why" mean in that context? Is it a question of motivation or structure or intent? It's such a vague question as to be totally meaningless.


"why" has two main meanings:

1. From what cause or by what means - very related to "how" or "how come".
2. For what end or purpose.

Sometimes it is an interrogative "for what reason" which could pertain to either means or ends.

As you can see as an interrogative "why?" pertains to means or to ends. The context of the question is required to disambiguate the query.

ruveyn


And how would you interpret the question as to why there is something rather than nothing?


I would have to regard the question as either meaningless or unanswerable. It you assume the question is by what means is there something rather than nothing, it is assumed there is a means by which there is something rather than nothing, but that begs the question since it assumes that there is something. If you assume the question pertains to purpose then there must be some entity who has a purpose for making existence possible. But that assumes the possible, in postulating the existence of that entity. If one takes questions like this seriously, it will lead to brain fatigue. Sort of like asking what is the sound of one hand clapping or what happens when the Irresistable Force meets the Unmoveable Object. That is not a real query since neither the Irresistable Force nor the Unmoveable Object exists.

When I encounter pseudo philosophy, the like of which underlies such bogus questions, I reach for my thermodynamically operated metallic slug emitter.

ruveyn


I endorse wholly your evaluation of the question as meaningful as chicken clucking to anyone outside the chicken community. The quality of solid sense is as missing there as it is in most of the justification of theological maunderings here demonstrated in defense of Christianity.



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14 Nov 2010, 5:41 am

ruveyn wrote:
The conservation of momentum (the third law of motion as given by Newton) indicates there is no such thing as an unmoved mover.

ruveyn


I already addressed this in my post:

As an addendum to that Michio Kaku attempted to destroy the Cosmological Argument in his book Hyperspace where he put forward the issue of gas molecules moving on their own without outside interaction (the same would also be true of conservation of momentum). So before you start bringing up this point please consider that it has already been discredited as a non sequitur; since one cannot disprove the existence of primary causality by taking note of the persistence of secondary causality.


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Sand
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14 Nov 2010, 6:57 am

91 wrote:
ruveyn wrote:
The conservation of momentum (the third law of motion as given by Newton) indicates there is no such thing as an unmoved mover.

ruveyn


I already addressed this in my post:

As an addendum to that Michio Kaku attempted to destroy the Cosmological Argument in his book Hyperspace where he put forward the issue of gas molecules moving on their own without outside interaction (the same would also be true of conservation of momentum). So before you start bringing up this point please consider that it has already been discredited as a non sequitur; since one cannot disprove the existence of primary causality by taking note of the persistence of secondary causality.


Causality is a macro phenomenon and at the quantum level it does not hold.



ruveyn
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14 Nov 2010, 8:17 am

Sand wrote:
is point please consider that it has already been discredited as a non sequitur; since one cannot disprove the existence of primary causality by taking note of the persistence of secondary causality.


Causality is a macro phenomenon and at the quantum level it does not hold.[/quote]

That would be deterministic causality.

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14 Nov 2010, 8:42 am

91 wrote:
1) Well it would seem that in order to prove you point you would have to prove that it is impossible for nothing to exist. Essentially you would have to answer ‘why should there be something rather than nothing’? This would get us no where since the cosmological argument postulates that the answer is God. So in order to actually prove that it is impossible for nothing to exist you would have to answer Schopenhauer’s question first.

I don't think so, after all, you didn't have to prove the necessity of God to use the argument, so why should I have to prove the necessity of something. Of particular relevance is the fact that people who take the view of "it is impossible for nothing to exist", focus on the inconceivability of nothing. For instance, they'll point out that "nothing" isn't just time and space that is empty, but rather it is no time or space. That being said, given that I am using a possibility as a rebuttal, I do not feel beholden to the strength of it.

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2) The Chaotic Inflation model postulates that it is easy to ‘create a universe’ but does not deal with the question of how it became possible to create a multiverse that spawns universes (it does not need to do this to explain our universe). However far back you push it you would eventually fall into the trap of having to admit to the existence of Aristotle’s ‘Unmoved Mover’ eventually. Also the further you go back; you generate more teleological evidence that supports that argument.

I know that some views of universe spawning rely on black holes. I am not sure that I have to admit to an unmoved mover though, as if we have an infinite past, then all movers are moved by other movers.

As for "teleological evidence", a problem is that given that this is a multiverse theory, and one that relies on infinity, I actually don't because this idea abolishes the problems of chance. Sort of like how getting 100 tails in a row is no longer a big thing if you flip a coin an absurd amount of times.

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Aristotle’s ‘Unmoved Mover’
i. There exists movement in the world.
ii. Things that move were set into motion by something else.
iii. If everything that moves were caused to move by something else, there would be an infinite chain of causes. This can't happen.
iv. Thus, there must have been something that caused the first movement.
v. From 3, this first cause cannot itself have been moved.
vi. From 4, there must be an unmoved mover.

I've actually explicitly rejected premise 3 already. I am fine with infinite chains of causes.

Quote:
As an addendum to that Michio Kaku attempted to destroy the Cosmological Argument in his book Hyperspace where he put forward the issue of gas molecules moving on their own without outside interaction. So before you start bringing up this point please consider that it has already been discredited as a non sequitur; since one cannot disprove the existence of primary causality by taking note of the persistence of secondary causality.

Hunh, that's interesting, from what I've heard auto-causation was still an argument used. It tends to rely upon quantum randomness. And well... if uncaused events can occur, then why not at any level? I mean, there is the spontaneous generation of particles in reality. So, why CAN'T it be invoked?

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3) As I have stated previously there is no reason to suppose that there is an infinite number of universes, since the number would be contingent on the number that could exist within the confines of mathematics. This really has more to do with the Teleological Argument, not the cosmological argument because it does not escape Aristotle’s Unmoved Mover or the question of ‘Why there is something rather than nothing’.

There is no reason to suppose that there is a God. We're making an argument, but another possibility also works.

I am unsure what you meant by "contingent on the number...". Some philosophers are fine with infinities. I am fine with infinities.

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Your invocation of Chaotic Inflation actually works against you when considering the Teleological Argument. Since, based on the concept of Chaotic Inflation it is actually rather easy to create a universe. Since the aim of the Teleological Argument is based on the supposition that the universe has been fine tuned for life, the fact is that if it is easy for someone or something to create a universe it is more probable than not that we live in such a universe rather than not. For instance this argument was put forward by Nick Bostrom when he postulated his ‘simulation argument’.

Umm..... "ease" is irrelevant for an omnipotent and omniscient being. "Ease" makes no sense with such an entity in mind.

That being said, any naturalistic position that can account for the data works as a rebuttal to the teleological argument.

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It is in this argument that you seem to exhibit the most confusion. Firstly you have supposed that Gods mind must be complex based on the present understanding of logic. Since God is immaterial, I see no reason to grant this. Secondly you continue to assert that Gods existence and his essence must be the same thing, which is clearly not the case when one reads Plantinga’s argument on the subject. This is due to the fact that only divine essence must be simple to escape Euthyphro’s dilemma or even the modified Euthyphro; due to the fact that nature and action are not the same thing.

Immateriality has nothing to do with logical requirements of cognition.

No, I assert the opposite. You've asserted simplicity, which regards existence and essence as the same thing. I've rejected simplicity. The major model of simplicity given is often that existence and essence are the same.

Right, we both agree that the divine essence must be simple. I reject that the divine essence is simple.

That's interesting, because from what I understand, Plantinga argued against simplicity because it undercut the existence of a personal god.

Quote:
The Ontological Argument from the Possibility of God’s Existence to His Actuality

You have claimed that your inversion of the logic inherent in the Ontological argument represents the destruction of that logic through ‘reductio ad absurdum’. This is because you are not demonstrating ‘reductio ad absurdum’ when you are inverting the logic. For example when Dawkins inverted the Ontological Argument at the Templeton Foundation Conference in Cambridge and claimed what you are claiming he was laughed at for missing the point.

Ah, and here I thought by "inverting logic", you meant that I was using the logical framings legitimately, and using them to get to a different point. Inversion in mathematics is valid.

As it stands, I am using that logic very much legitimately. In fact, the notion of the ontological argument proving "effectively evil" beings is something I stole from philosopher Steven Law on the issue, as Steven Law has emphasized the extent to which arguments for God equally argue for a completely evil being.

Quote:
‘A parody of the argument that moves from a logical impossibility to actuality is not parallel to the argument.’

Also it is worth noting that the Ontological Argument is based on modal logic, so one does not need to invoke an outside force to prove Dawkins wrong.

I didn't move from impossibility to actuality though. I moved from POSSIBILITY to actuality. The framings I used were really just uses of opposing premise 1s to the ontological argument, but pushing these different premises through the grinder to get an outcome. If the basic logic of the ontological argument is correct, then both of my ontological arguments are valid.



leejosepho
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14 Nov 2010, 10:13 am

skafather84 wrote:
REMINDER: Testimonials are not evidence.

Correct, yet they do bear witness *of* evidence (at least as perceived by the witness).

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
The program manipulated your feelings ... to alter your behavior.

No. The program is a process for taking specific actions without regard for thought, notion or feeling.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
It [the program] didn't need God though ...

Wrong. If there were no "God", there could be no program.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
... other similar programs have the same success rate.

Seemingly so, but not with the same class of clients.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
If God were necessary, then only [God-specific] programs would work.

For the real alcoholic such as myself, there is no other way.


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14 Nov 2010, 10:55 am

leejosepho wrote:
skafather84 wrote:
REMINDER: Testimonials are not evidence.

Correct, yet they do bear witness *of* evidence (at least as perceived by the witness).

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
The program manipulated your feelings ... to alter your behavior.

No. The program is a process for taking specific actions without regard for thought, notion or feeling.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
It [the program] didn't need God though ...

Wrong. If there were no "God", there could be no program.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
... other similar programs have the same success rate.

Seemingly so, but not with the same class of clients.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
If God were necessary, then only [God-specific] programs would work.

For the real alcoholic such as myself, there is no other way.


Nonsense, plenty of real alcoholics fully recover without any sort of God-required program. Some people are genetically more prone to addiction (of all sorts) than others. I am one of these people, as are many members in my family. The ones that have bought into the AA dogma are in a constant struggle for sobriety. I, on the other hand, made a conscious decision to quit after many years of both drug and alcohol abuse and haven't looked back since. Of course it was hard, but it was my choice and I was in full control of my own actions at all times. The "powerless" notion is crap.

Smoking, for example, is said to be one of the hardest vices to overcome, and I agree. Somehow, people have managed to do it without a 12-step program. Most people don't consider themselves to be recovering smokers for the rest of their lives. They are ex-smokers. This doesn't mean that cravings are nonexistent, ex-smokers just conscientiously choose not to smoke so they can avoid a true disease, like lung cancer.

leejosepho, please don't take any of this personally. The program seems to be working for you, and that is a good thing that I would not want to interfere with. These are just my personal beliefs about the program. I have no ill will.



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14 Nov 2010, 11:50 am

number5 wrote:
... plenty of real alcoholics fully recover without any sort of God-required program.

Why do people always spin things?! I have said nothing about any alleged "God-required program"! Rather, and following many thousands of A.A. and/or AA meetings since my own beginning in 1981, I am simply saying I have never seen any evidence of any real alcoholic ("Alcoholics Anonymous", the book, page 21) ever becoming permanently recovered from the hopelessness of chronic alcoholism apart from spiritual help. Now, I certainly have seen a few miserable "dry drunks" remaining abstinent for considerable periods of time, of course, but that only speaks for their continued defiance!

number5 wrote:
Some people are genetically more prone to addiction ...
I am one of these people, as are many members in my family. The ones that have bought into the AA dogma ...

... have likely never even been offered/shown the original A.A. experience. So, their "constant struggle for sobriety" makes perfect sense and is quite likely even clearly described in "Alcoholics Anonymous", the book.

number5 wrote:
I, on the other hand, made a conscious decision to quit after many years ...

I am a real alcoholic who tried that many times before I had ever even heard of any A.A. or AA experience, and I would never have ended up accepting either for myself if I could have actually carried out that decision.

number5 wrote:
The "powerless" notion is crap.

Not when one is powerless!

number5 wrote:
These are just my personal beliefs about the program. I have no ill will.

No offense felt, and you might consider discovering some actual facts about the *original* program for the sake of others around you who, like me, *cannot* do as you have done.


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14 Nov 2010, 11:59 am

leejosepho wrote:
number5 wrote:
... plenty of real alcoholics fully recover without any sort of God-required program.

Why do people always spin things?! I have said nothing about any alleged "God-required program"! Rather, and following many thousands of A.A. and/or AA meetings since my own beginning in 1981, I am simply saying I have never seen any evidence of any real alcoholic ("Alcoholics Anonymous", the book, page 21) ever becoming permanently recovered from the hopelessness of chronic alcoholism apart from spiritual help. Now, I certainly have seen a few miserable "dry drunks" remaining abstinent for considerable periods of time, of course, but that only speaks for their continued defiance!

.


Tobacco addiction is just as persistent and nasty as alcohol addiction. I was able to free myself from The Weed by purely rational means. It was not easy, I can assure you. Ten times I tried to stop smoking cigarettes and the first nine times I failed. And I still consider myself a smoker. I have just stopped lighting up. At no time did I appeal to a "higher power". I just considered the alternatives which came down to life or death. Therefore chose life. I did the choosing. I did not have a "higher power" to help me. I did it myself for myself.

ruveyn



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14 Nov 2010, 12:23 pm

number5 wrote:
Nonsense, plenty of real alcoholics fully recover without any sort of God-required program. Some people are genetically more prone to addiction (of all sorts) than others.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/God_gene

Explains why most people have to believe there is a initial cause or some mover acting in the world, instead of just accepting there is a world.



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14 Nov 2010, 1:06 pm

ruveyn wrote:
I was able to free myself ...

... and I was not.


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14 Nov 2010, 1:12 pm

ruveyn wrote:
At no time did I appeal to a "higher power". I just considered the alternatives which came down to life or death. Therefore chose life. I did the choosing. I did not have a "higher power" to help me. I did it myself for myself.

ruveyn


Precisely my point. Just as someone has the power and the choice to pick up a drink, cigarette, needle, etc. in the first place, they have the same power to put it down. This is the hard part, not the impossible part. Is an atheist incapable of quitting an addictive habit? No, it happens with some frequency.



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14 Nov 2010, 1:21 pm

The supposition of a "first cause" makes sense to a lot of people. The flatness of the earth is also quite obvious. Free will was granted by god but you have to ask extra nice to be allowed to exercise it over addiction, sometimes.

No. I'm sorry, but no. AA works for the same reason programs that don't require you to assume helplessness without a "higher power." if AA incorporated "the hokey pokey" as a mandatory pre-meeting exercise, would many people be as adament about it's necessity or magic powers?

Addiction: a hilarious bit of evidence against intelligent design? A rather not hilarious bit of evidence for god being playfully brutal? Or maybe it's an example of reality being more complex than a (sky)fairytale.

Though I do enjoy 91's consistent avoidance of the burden of proof by repeatedly presupposing a beginningless god and refusing to entertain any notion of a beginningless cosmos.

Somewhere between the earth and mars, a teapot is giggling, silently, to itself.


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14 Nov 2010, 1:23 pm

leejosepho wrote:
ruveyn wrote:
I was able to free myself ...

... and I was not.


I guess another way to look at it could be through the serenity prayer, which I think is a very nice piece of poetic wisdom. We differ on whether quitting is part of the things we can or cannot change part.



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14 Nov 2010, 3:35 pm

number5 wrote:
Just as someone has the power and the choice to pick up a drink, cigarette, needle, etc. in the first place, they have the same power to put it down.

That is just not so! I do not expect you or anyone else to believe me against your own will, but I do "challenge you to the death" as to the matter of proving my personal experience wrong! I could not possibly type enough capitalized words in any font sufficiently large enough to here convey how much effort I put into "Just don't drink!" even before ever attending an A.A. meeting, and finding a book written by people with exactly that same problem later shocked me: I had thought I was the only one!

If the things you are saying are true, then the entirety of that book is nothing but one monstrous lie, and especially this:

"For those who are unable to drink moderately the question is how to stop altogether. We are assuming, of course, that the reader desires to stop. Whether such a person can quit upon a nonspiritual basis depends upon the extent to which he has already lost the power to choose whether he will drink or not. Many of us felt that we had plenty of character. There was a tremendous urge to cease forever. Yet we found it impossible. This is the baffling feature of alcoholism as we know it - this utter inability to leave it alone, no matter how great the necessity or the wish." (page 34)

That might not have been your deal, but it certainly was mine!

number5 wrote:
We differ on whether quitting is part of the things we can or cannot change part.

No, facts are facts, and I had not even offered an opinion there!


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