Is rape really as common as the media would have us believe?

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Why does it matter whether the figure of the media is accurate or not? If it is not, would that make the problem of rape any less grave? If it is not, would it really mean there is an active work in the media at making the numbers larger? What if the number is actually worse than the media says? Afterall, rape victims are not eager to report it.

Correct. It's only rape (assuming no other exacerbating circumstances) if one is drunk to the point of being unable to consent (ie, unconscious or semi-conscious) and the other is sober enough to understand the consequences.

Well it was a fun discussion folks, but it has come to my attention that I am a rapist. A few days ago I had consensual sex with a girl I don't love. I'm off to go turn myself in at the police station. Byeeee.

Well, most of men are misinformed about this date-rape laws. I do recommend all men to type out the word rape and date rape and try to practice safe sexual acts instead of learning it from pornography which is mostly rape in my view.

If a man were to get women so drunk to the point where she is not able to give a meaningful consent and if he was intoxicated himself, that would be considered rape. but this is very reason why so many date-rape crimes are under reported or not prosecuted enough because Men think it's Okey to take advantage of a drunk horny women at the party or whatnot.

but if you do simple research, there are many cases where men have been shamed publicly and prosecuted in many countries due to date rape crimes in similar circumstances.

If a woman would have said No to sex if she was not chemically controlled, "medicated", intoxicated or otherwise mentally impaired or mentally helpless due to "threats", it would be considered rape even if it happened between a couple with previous sexual history.

Any men who use his position of power such as his teaching position or position at a company to lure women into sexual activity is also considered rape as well. (as the law says)

You are simply playing a word game on here. I meant to say taking advantage of someone with impairment would be rape.
Taking Advantage of someone implies that person did not want to be in sexual act with the particular individual.

If you had used any of the following, Money, Power, Duress, Drugs etc to have sex with someone who would have not have engaged in sex act with you, you would be essentially committing a rape.

Therefore, Many of the videos depicting couples having sex would also be considered Rape crimes.
Because pornography is very much like prostitution. and most of prostitution is act of rape.

I should have worded or phrased it differently. I believe any sex acts between couple without mutual Desire and attraction would be rape. so if she is not feeling any sexual desire nor attraction for you, but you use some type of illegal means to obtain Sex from her by involving police men, paying off Lawyers, or hiring some individuals without her "WILFUL desire"
you would be essentially committing a rape.

the key word is "wilful desire of woman/participant" who is not controlled by external factors, such as financial control, PIMPs, Chemical dependency.

If she is having sex with someone to pay her next meal, because without turning tricks she would have to starve herself, you would be committing a rape.

But if you have sex with a woman who enjoys having sex with you and also enjoy getting paid some money to buy her next Gucci purse, it would be acceptable form of prostitution.

Do you see the distinction on here? Wilful desire of woman to want to engage in sex with financially well off men is important factor.

Therefore, if a woman decided to file a police report on a man she claimed to have raped her, most likely it is very possible that she has been raped. Because if she had any attraction or feeling of love for the man she made love to, she would not want to see him end up in Jail to be raped by other men.

Why would you make love to someone and run to a police station to make a false rape report?

If you apply this simple analogy, it is so easy to see why all rape crimes should be investigated thoroughly.

We've been down this cul-de-sac before.

Whether or not you have some sort of moral high ground with that argument, law usually includes a concept of intent.

while I have empathy with staralfurious definition of rape I still hole that around 12.5% of the population of earth
has been the victim of violent forced copulation.
Data suggests that between 3% and 8% of reported rapes are unfounded
so most women that report rapes are indeed victims of rape.

I agree with all that, I'm just struggling with the concept that if the girl in the porno is faking it I am eye-raping her, but if she really is a dirty slut then it is ok.

Maybe if a prostitute can argue that a man raped her because she wasn't attracted to him when she agreed to exchange sexual favors for money, the man can argue that the prostitute sought to defraud him by pretending to be into it?

Well since we have the power of an inventive language lets call violent forced copulation rape.
We can still say that at least a portion of the women in porno are being sexually exploited.

That's really been my problem with staralfurious' position. Stretching a word around too many concepts.

I had a girlfriend who strung me along because she craved validation and was in love with the concept of having a loyal partner rather than actually having a relationship with anyone i've even met. So i guess i was raped, right?

'Lure' is often not the correct word for that situation (maybe it is for high school girls with stars in their eyes); 'coerce' is often more applicable. Also, if a professor is granting grading favors to one student (or several) due to sexual favors, it's legally (IIrc) sexual harassment against all of his other students, as well as the ones actually granting the favors.

If a man deliberately gets his partner drunk in order to coerce her into sex she would not have otherwise agreed to, then it's rape even if he got drunk in the process; however, if both partners are drunk and stupid and there's no premeditation, it's basically mutually bad (like two 13 year olds having sex); likewise, if a woman deliberately gets a man drunk or otherwise chemically coerces him into having sex that he would not otherwise consent to (yes, it is possible), then she has raped him. I don't know of any cases where charges have been brought in a case like the last example, but I wouldn't be terribly surprised if one came up in the next decade or so. Possibly one reason we don't hear much about it is that alcohol intoxication decreases a male's ability to perform (I don't know about the effect of other date-rape drugs).

raped, probably not. Sexually taken advantage of? Definitely.

edit: an article relevant to this thread
http://life.salon.com/2011/09/30/fbi_ra ... singleton/

I don't think she intended to do me wrong. I just think i had something really sh***y happen to me that was precipitated by poor decisions on both sides.

Honestly, I don't think that some of the men who commit acts that are technically rape, and have horrible consequences for their victims, mean to be bad people; nor do many of them understand the severity of the consequences of their actions on the victims. There are a lot of men out there who have a 'no sex is bad sex' attitude, and don't get that it's more than an "inconvenience" from the woman's pov.

In your case, I'll take your word for it though.

*shrug* she probably tells people i took advantage of her. And i don't doubt that she believes it, either.