Misslizard wrote:
I don't think he qualifies as a vigilante,that implies hunting someone down and imposing ones idea of justice on someone else.If he did not catch the rapist in the act,but went to his house later and killed the man,I could see why he should go to court over that.
In any case,even if he went to court no one would find him guilty,so it did save the tax payers the cost of a trial.
Since when does vigilanteism require action after the fact? If we subscribe to the view that he used excessive force (and I am fully aware that there is no consensus around that matter), then it would seem to me that his motivation was not merely to stop the offence, but retribution as well. The instant that the motivation moves from prevention to retribution, I suggest that vigilateism is made out.
As for the second point--that was front and center in my first post wasn't it?
My concern is that this is fundamentally prejudicial. It presumes to prejudge what a trier of fact would do with a particular case, and subordinates the proper workings of the courts to someone's prejudgement of the facts. In the ordinary course of events, I think prosecutors are well placed to exercise a certain level of discretion; but in a case such as this, it seems that the prosecutor's decision was essentially dictated by political expediency.
That is what troubles me.
_________________
--James