The difference between NTs and Aspies

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jackbus01
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22 Nov 2011, 12:49 pm

CockneyRebel wrote:
The parents are concerned about their kids and they hope that they will fit in with the NT world.

Many of us on the spectrum might or might not be interested in fitting into the NT world. I know that I'm not and that's why I have to ask myself why the parents put so much pressure on their kids. Not all of them but some of them.


I agree with you. Although a lot of the Parent's Forum seems reasonable.



jackbus01
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22 Nov 2011, 1:00 pm

b9 wrote:
i excogitate that the prevalence of annunciated sesquipedality is unsubstantial when juxtaposed with the prevalence of sesquipedalianism in transcriptive elucidations


This sentence is overly abstruse. Please restate in a more comprehensible manner. Also sentences begin with a capital letter and end with a period. And yes I know you are not serious.

I am going to look up sesquipedalianism, sesquipedality, and excogitate now. :)



jackbus01
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22 Nov 2011, 1:08 pm

Ai_Ling wrote:
Ive noticed that difference. NTs know how to summarize things much better. Whereas aspies seem to have trouble summarizing and not rambling. That aspect is one thing I do look for in spotting out aspies. Aspies have a very hard time getting to the point and often go off on our own little stories. We feel like we need to let people know every single detail. Whereas NTs know that certain details are implied by more summary statements so there words are more succinct.

See look how long it took me to explain this where an NT could explain this in a sentence or 2.


Actually your post is quite literate, which I really appreciate.

The following post might pass on a less literate NT forum. It's much shorter.

like evr notice how aspies r all like weird & stuff??? they go on an on an on and wont shuddup!! !! !! !



jackbus01
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22 Nov 2011, 1:11 pm

Burnbridge wrote:
Good observation, swbluto!

I can't speak for anyone else, but I learned how to talk from reading books and socializing on pre-internet BBS systems. I have focused on eliminating the authoritarian & pedantic formal vocabulary from my verbal speech, with decent results. Yet when I write, I automatically revert back to formality. Formal, grammatical correctness would be my predominant state. Yesterday I even started using footnotes in my posts.¹

Lacking a google translate function to translate Aspie -> Entie, perhaps I should spend more time in the parent's forum practicing my plain talk. I read Aesop & modern pulp novels periodically to brush up on my grasp of idiom and cliche. This helps, as well:

Link: http://www.idiomsite.com/

¹ Because it's fun, and somewhat more lucid than using parentheses all the time.



Hey, same here, except I haven't eliminated the pedantic vocabulary in my verbal speech. Its a feature not a bug!



b9
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23 Nov 2011, 9:27 am

jackbus01 wrote:
b9 wrote:
i excogitate that the prevalence of annunciated sesquipedality is unsubstantial when juxtaposed with the prevalence of sesquipedalianism in transcriptive elucidations


This sentence is overly abstruse.
that is tautological.



jackbus01 wrote:
Please restate in a more comprehensible manner. Also sentences begin with a capital letter and end with a period. And yes I know you are not serious.


i can not be bothered following protocols that i do not agree with (pertaining to capital letters and unnecessary periods). is a period really necessary to add to the obvious end to my post?

i mean, one can not keep reading beyond what i say, so is a final period necessary? no. that is why i never use a final "full stop".

now i will elaborate on the sesquipedalian post i made.

"i excogitate that the prevalence of annunciated sesquipedality is unsubstantial when juxtaposed with the prevalence of sesquipedalianism in transcriptive elucidations" means that i have carefully considered that there are many less people who are pedantic in a spoken way than in a written way, and the insinuation is that anyone can be pedantic if they have enough time to try to be pedantic if they wish to be that way



swbluto
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23 Nov 2011, 9:35 am

Stefan10 wrote:
Interestingly we can probably determine if there is a preference of diction based on word origin used. For example, do Aspies subconsciously prefer to use less-commonly used English words that originated from Latin or French derivatives, but allow for more precision? Do NTs prefer the simplified commonly used yet vague words and Germanic roots? Another comparison could be "which group uses more specialized terminology that the average person would be unfamiliar with in comparison to which group substitutes the words for less precision, but allows for easier accessibility in the general population(Neurotypicals.)" I'd think that NT's would do the latter far more often. Another comparison could be variety of diction and sentence structure opposed to repetition. We can analyze which group enjoys to use loaded or emotion-based words. There are so many things that can be analyzed!! I find this very interesting. For me, I can't understand a text unless the distinctions and meanings are clearly explicated among the more common terminologies. That means diction is very important in my understanding of a definition or process.


I always wondered if most NTs had a refined sense for when a word was "common" and when it wasn't, because I notice there are people who use relatively large words all the time but yet they don't get attacked for it, whereas it does when I seem to, suggesting I might have a worse sense of "word rarity" or some such. Of course, maybe my lexicon is perfectly fine and they're picking on my language usage for other reasons. (I get the feeling "lexicon" might be considered a part of a not-so-fine, pedantic lexicon, lol.)



Janissy
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23 Nov 2011, 10:51 am

swbluto wrote:
I always wondered if most NTs had a refined sense for when a word was "common" and when it wasn't, because I notice there are people who use relatively large words all the time but yet they don't get attacked for it, whereas it does when I seem to, suggesting I might have a worse sense of "word rarity" or some such. Of course, maybe my lexicon is perfectly fine and they're picking on my language usage for other reasons. (I get the feeling "lexicon" might be considered a part of a not-so-fine, pedantic lexicon, lol.)


Yes. If a large word is commonly used, nobody will get annoyed with your use of it since most people will know what it means. The way to have a feel for word rarity/frequency is frequent conversations with many different groups of people and also exposure to many types of media. If a large word is used frequently on TV or in movies, people will understand it even if they don't use it a lot themselves.

Why are the infrequently used large words annoying to so many people? Because it's perceived as a way of saying, "I use these words without having to look them up but you have to look them up because you're dumber than me." That may not have been the intention, but it will be a common interpretation. A way to get around this annoyance is to use these words infrequently. If they pop up in your language now and then, it doesn't come across as being deliberately obfuscating (I did it right there!- only once in the entire paragraph). Instead it comes across as trying to be specific. People sometimes figure out what you mean by context or ask about the word. But if you use so many low-frequency big words that most people have no idea what you just said than you are perceived as being intentionally annoying- implying they are too dumb to understand you.



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