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caston
Emu Egg
Emu Egg

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Joined: 24 May 2006
Gender: Male
Posts: 4
Location: Perth

25 May 2006, 9:34 am

Hello,

I'm wondering if the ratio of Aspies to NTs is any higher amongst members of the international bourgeois than it is amongst the general working class and petty-bourgeois.

There is definately a very high ratio amongst the digerati but what about the owners of big finance, resource, insurance and investment companies?

thanks,

Chris



Sundy
Deinonychus
Deinonychus

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Joined: 12 Mar 2006
Gender: Female
Posts: 300
Location: South Texas

25 May 2006, 12:41 pm

Dude, I'm not sure. Maybe I'm not real clear.

However, I think I have an idea of what you're asking. For instance, I was sitting at a coffee shop the other day and overheard two girls (18-20 years old) talking. By the way their conversation was going, I could easily tell that neither of them had any form of Aspergers or Autism. From their conversation, I was able to gather that they had come from the "old money" side of my city. I'd have to say that the people with the old money do not seem to have as many incidences of Aspergers as it would not fit their social mold. If they are on the autism spectrum, they're probably removed (either voluntary or not) from this society.

Is this what you were thinking of?